WHAT DID JESUS WRITE ON THE GROUND??

The Pharisees brought Him a woman          
who had been caught committing adultery(John 8.3-4).        
(a euphemism for something worse:prostitution?).        
They said to Him,"Now Moses in the [Torah]Law        
Commanded that such should be stoned [to death].        
But what do you say?(John 8.5)."        
"..But Jesus stooped down and with His finger        
Wrote on the ground, as though He didn't hear them.        
But when they continued asking Him,        
He lifted Himself up and said unto them,        
'He that is without sin, let him[be the]first        
[to] cast a stone at her'(John 8.7).        
Again He stooped down and wrote on the ground"(John 8.8).        
         
So, just what did Christ write with His finger? Nothing!        
He wasn't really writing! It only looked that way!        
When they told Him about the guilty young woman,        
He at once wanted to save her from being stoned to death.        
But there was no basis, none at all,        
for the Law of Moses required death to pay for adultery.        
So He bent down to pray,pray,pray with all His heart.        
Naturally tears came quickly,          
He faced the ground so that nobody would see He was crying.        
As His tears fell to the ground          
His finger covered them with sand          
Lest anyone see the accumulating wetness.        
         
It says, "they kept asking Him" for an answer(John 8.7).        
So it may have been that His covert crying,          
His hidden agonizing, continued for a few minutes.        
But then the answer from God came!        
"Don't go against the Law of Moses        
Just add a requirement to it so as to negate it!"        
"Yes, that's it," - I can hear Christ exclaiming in His heart.        
"Yes, that's the way to save her life!!"        
         
So He stands up and replies to them,        
"Go ahead and stone her.          
But I require a lot more than Moses.        
Let the first man to stone her be totally righteous."        
         
Then Jesus stooped a second time to "write" on the ground(8.8).        
This may mean He was so totally overwhelmed with joy          
- Gratitude to God for saving the young woman's life -        
That He burst into tears which, of course,          
had to be covered up with sand as they fell to the earth.          
         
Then the would-be executioners,          
dropping their stones, walked away.        
Leaving Christ alone with the woman.        
She sees the redness of His eyes,        
The wetness of His face.        
She realizes He has cried his eyes out over her.        
He becomes to her the hero who has saved her life!        
         
What evidence is there that Christ really did          
Cry His eyes out over this young woman?        
What Biblical circumstantial evidence?        
If "We love Him because He first loved us"(1 John 4.19),        
Then likewise, this woman should cry over Christ          
Because He first wept over her        
- if He did in fact weep (while praying) over her.        
       
So we look to see if it speaks of her crying!        
When Christ came to dinner at Simon's house(Luke 7.37-48),        
This same woman shows up uninvited.        
She proceeds to kiss Christ's feet,        
Wiping them with the hairs of her head.        
But more importantly, weeping as she does so(Luke 7.38,44).        
It may be that she wept for Him        
because He first wept for her!        
       
What evidence is there that she's the same woman?        
The woman at Simon's house evidently feels gratitude        
To Christ for something He has done prior to that time.        
What is it? Well, if He saved her life (as in John 8.7)        
Wouldn't that account for her great sense of gratitude?        
Plus there's this parallel:        
The woman in John 8 is a serious sinner.        
The woman here, likewise,is explicitly        
Called "a sinner"(Luke 7.39) by Simon.        
       
It may be that this same woman        
is none other than "Mary Magdalen,        
Out of whom Christ cast seven demons"(Luke 8.2).      
The mention of "seven demons" implies      
that she committed more than ordinary sins.      
Adultery fits here,for it was a capital offense.  
The seventh of the Ten Commandments(Exodus 20.14),  
Prohibits Adultery(and by extension prostitution).      
So the number seven in the "seven demons"(Luke 8.2)  
May be a clue that Mary Magdalen  
Broke the Seventh Commandment.  
In short, "seven demons' is evidence      
That Mary Magdalen was an adulterer/prostitute.      
The use of "seven demons' may be a euphemism      
skirting the sexual nature of Mary's sins.      
 
"Sinner"(Luke 7.39)likewise sounds like      
a euphemistic language for a prostitute      
In regard to the woman who came into Simon's house.      
On that basis we can say she and Mary Magdalen      
probably were the same woman.      
     
The "sinner" woman is covered in Luke 7.37-48      
While Mary Magdalen is introduced right afterward(Luke 8.2).      
That is to say, they are put together.      
As if there's a hint of a connection.      
Plus,like I said above,she(the one at Simon's house)      
and the woman caught in adultery      
most likely were one and the same.      
So far, we have three characters      
who are actually just one person.      
   
Three down and one to go:      
Mary Magdalen and Mary of Bethany      
were, I believe, the same person!      
First of all, Mary of Bethany,      
Sister of Martha and Lazarus,      
Wipes Christ's feet with the hairs of her head(John 12.3),      
As does the "sinner" at Simon's(Luke 7.37-38),      
Which should be Mary Magdalen.      
   
In addition, Mary of Bethany became a disciple      
On a level with the "12 disciples"      
In that she sat at Christ's feet,      
receiving instruction along WITH them(Luke 10.39-42).      
Thus the title she'd be likely to      
use for Christ was "Teacher."      
Well, we have Mary Magdalen calling Christ,"MY Teacher,"      
"Raboni,"as she meets the Risen Christ(John 20.1,16).      
As if SHE were His female student.      
But she wasn't, unless she and      
Mary of Bethany are the same Mary!      
     
Mary Magdalen comes to the tomb early Sunday morning(John 20.1).      
Where is Mary of Bethany? Nowhere to be found.      
But she was His unique female disciple(Luke 10.39-42)!      
So she, you would think, should be there!      
This can be explained this way:      
She was there but under a different name:      
Mary Magdalen, of course!      
     
There's no passage in the entire New Testament      
where the names of Mary Magdalen and Mary of Bethany      
Are listed as being in the same place at the same time.      
That would make sense if they are in fact the same person.      
     
Climax: If the woman caught in adultery(John 8.3-4),      
Whose life Christ saved, equals Mary Magdalen,      
The first to see him after the Resurrection,      
There is a slight parallel at work here.      
He reversed her death sentence      
(by negating the Law of Moses).      
And later, He reversed the fact of His own death      
by negating, overriding,the laws of nature, biology.      
The reason He chose her to be the first witness      
Of His own Resurrection was because, like Him,      
She too had experienced a (sort of) resurrection.      
They both experienced a resurrection:      
One literal, the other figurative.      
     
PS:I left out this parallel:      
(1)the "sinner" anoints Christ's feet with ointment,      
Wiping them with the hairs of her head(Luke 7.37-39).      
(2)Mary of Bethany anoints His feet with ointment,      
Wiping them with the hairs of her head(John 12.3)      
   
But Mary of Bethany anoints Christ's head(Luke 14.3).      
So why the mention of her anointing His feet(John 12.3)?      
It may be a clue revealing to us that      
the anointing of the feet in Luke 7 and John 12      
are both done by the same woman!