The New Testament DENIES the Inerrancy of the Law of Moses (the first 5 books of the Bible)

For we read, "The Law was given by Moses,
But ..TRUTH came by Jesus Christ" (John 1.17).
Why doesn't it say, "the Law was given by Moses
But additional truth came by Jesus Christ" ?
Because the purpose of that statement is to
convey the gap between the Law and the Gospel.
The Law of Moses isn't on a par with the Gospel.
The Bible isn't a monolith, a homogenized whole.

When Christ said that He came to "fulfill the Law,"
This can mean in the sense of correcting the weaknesses, the flaws, the errors therein !!

In some Sherlock Holmes story,
(Maybe "The Hounds of the Baskervilles"),
Something that should have been present
was absent: The barking of the dogs.
Why didn't they bark??
Noticing this anomaly led to the solving of the case.

Likewise, I ask you, why the lopsidedness of John 1.17,
Why does it have "Truth came [solely] by Jesus Christ,"
If the Law of Moses, the first 5 books of the Bible,
were and are completely truthful, flawless, inerrant ??
The SILENCE of the Gospel (of John) on the truthfulness of the Law is deafening.
John 1.17 is conspicuously separating the Law of Moses and the Gospel of Christ.
Why does he go out of his way to do that ??
Why say "Truth came by Christ [in the form of the Gospel]"
if the Law [the first 5 books] was just as full of Truth, inerrant ??!!
Why make a distinction - unless the difference in quality demands it ??!!

Why make a distinction between the Law and the Gospel -
unless that sharp distinction is warranted,
And DESERVES to be made ??!!

We don't always get what we want from God.
Our prayer requests may get turned down, go unfulfilled.
Our trust in Him needn't waver just because of that.
Likewise, even though we want the Bible to be perfectly inerrant,
When it falls short, that's no reason to go astray,
to fall into apostacy. or bitterness.

We need to adopt the attitude of Job as our own.
"Though He slay me, yet will I trust Him" (Job   ).
Paraphrasing it a bit, "Though He disappoint me concerning
Biblical inerrancy, yet will I remain faithful to Him and His Word."
After all, the Law of Moses needn't be 100% inerrant to do
the following: be "inspired of God, be profitable for doctrine,
for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness" (2 Timothy 3.16).